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Gold9472
01-22-2008, 10:49 PM
Why Does Rupert Define This as News Only in Britain?

http://www.huffingtonpost.com/harry-shearer/why-does-rupert-define-th_b_82552.html

Harry Shearer
Posted January 21, 2008 | 06:56 PM (EST)

I guess, in a way, it's proof of the oft-derided claim that Rupert Murdoch really doesn't control his "classy" media -- The Times of London, the Sunday Times, The Australian, now the WSJ -- the way he does his trashy ones -- the Brit and Australian tabloids, the NY Post. But his Times has been hard on a story I only started paying attention to thanks to a commenter on an earlier post: the Sibel Edmonds story. Last Sunday's Times advanced the story substantially: responding to a Freedom of Information Act request for a named file (one which Edmonds, a former FBI translator, says would support her story of American nuke materials making their way to Pakistan and elsewhere through Turkish intermediaries), the FBI denied that the file existed. The Sunday Times, though, says it has an internal document indicating that the file does indeed exist.

The theft of US nuclear secrets, the diverting of them to Pakistan (and, according to Edmonds, Saudi Arabia), the involvement of Israel in the scheme -- all of these would justify as jaw-droppingly newsworthy in a rational journalistic universe. Clearly, that's not where we live.